Night Owl 6/Night Owl's Shareware - PDSI-006 - Night Owl Corp (1990).iso/035a/exam10.zip/4B.EXM

Text File | 1991-12-10 | 132KB | 3,750 lines

74
'SUBELEMENT 4BA -- Commission's Rules (8 questions)
'(Programming note: Subelement 4BA has been split into two groups of 4
'questions each to prevent overflow)
4
4BA-1A.1

What exclusive frequency privileges in the 80-meter band are authorized to
Amateur Extra control operators?

3525-3775 kHz
3500-3525 kHz
3700-3750 kHz
3500-3550 kHz
4BA-1A.2


What exclusive frequency privileges in the 75-meter band are authorized to
Amateur Extra control operators?

3750-3775 kHz
3800-3850 kHz
3775-3800 kHz
3800-3825 kHz
4BA-1A.3


What exclusive frequency privileges in the 40-meter band are authorized to
Amateur Extra control operators?

7000-7025 kHz
7000-7050 kHz
7025-7050 kHz
7100-7150 kHz
4BA-1A.4

What exclusive frequency privileges in the 20-meter band are authorized to
Amateur Extra control operators?

14.100-14.175 MHz and 14.150-14.175 MHz
14.000-14.125 MHz and 14.250-14.300 MHz
14.025-14.050 MHz and 14.100-14.150 MHz
14.000-14.025 MHz and 14.150-14.175 MHz
4BA-1A.5

What exclusive frequency privileges in the 15-meter band are authorized to
Amateur Extra control operators?

21.000-21.200 MHz and 21.250-21.270 MHz
21.050-21.100 MHz and 21.150-21.175 MHz
21.000-21.025 MHz and 21.200-21.225 MHz
21.000-21.025 MHz and 21.250-21.275 MHz
4BA-1B.1


What is a spurious emission or radiation?

As defined by Section 97.73, any emission or radiation falling outside the

amateur band being used
As defined by Section 97.73, any emission or radiation other than the
fundamental that exceeds 25 microwatts, regardless of frequency
As defined by Section 97.73, any emission or radiation other than the
fundamental that exceeds 10 microwatts, regardless of frequency
As defined by Section 97.73, any emission or radiation falling outside the
amateur band that exceeds 25 microwatts
4BA-1B.2

How much must the mean power of any spurious emission or radiation from an
amateur transmitter be attenuated when the carrier frequency is below 30 MHz
and the mean transmitted power is equal to or greater than 5 watts?

At least 30 dB below the mean power of the fundamental, and less than 25 mW
At least 40 dB below the mean power of the fundamental, and less than 50 mW
At least 30 dB below the mean power of the fundamental, and less than 50 mW
At least 40 dB below the mean power of the fundamental, and less than 25 mW
4BA-1B.3

How much must the mean power of any spurious emission or radiation from an
amateur transmitter be attenuated when the carrier frequency is above 30 MHz
but below 225 MHz and the mean transmitted power is greater than 25 watts?

At least 30 dB below mean power of the fundamental
At least 40 dB below mean power of the fundamental
At least 50 dB below mean power of the fundamental
At least 60 dB below mean power of the fundamental
4BA-1B.4

What can the FCC require the licensee to do if any spurious radiation from an
amateur station causes harmful interference to the reception of another radio
station?

Reduce the spurious emissions to 0 dB below the fundamental
Observe quiet hours and pay a fine
Forfeit the station license and pay a fine
Eliminate or reduce the interference
4BA-1C.1

What are the points of communication for an amateur station?

Other amateur stations only
Other amateur stations and other stations authorized by the FCC to
communicate with amateurs
Other amateur stations and stations in the Personal Radio Service
Other amateur stations and stations in the Aviation or Private Land Mobile
Radio Services
4BA-1C.2

With which stations may an amateur station communicate?

Amateur, RACES and FCC Monitoring stations
Amateur stations and any other station authorized by the FCC to communicate
with amateur stations
Amateur stations only
Amateur stations and US Government stations
4BA-1C.3


Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station communicate with a
non-amateur station?

Only during emergencies and when the Commission has authorized the

non-amateur station to communicate with amateur stations
Under no circumstances
Only when the state governor has authorized that station to communicate
with amateurs
Only during Public Service events in connection with REACT groups
4BA-1D.1

What rules must US citizens comply with when operating an Amateur Radio
station in international waters?

The FCC rules contained in Part 15
The FCC rules contained in Part 97
The IARU rules governing international operation
There are no rules governing Amateur Radio operation in international waters
4BA-1E.1


An Amateur Radio station is installed on board a ship or aircraft in a
compartment separate from the main radio installation. What other conditions
must the amateur operator comply with?

The Amateur Radio operation must be approved by the master of the ship of

the captain of the aircraft
There must be an approved antenna switch included, so the amateur can use
the ship or aircraft antennas, transmitting only when the main radios are
not in use
The amateur station must have a power supply that is completely independent
of the ship or aircraft power
The Amateur Radio operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
on his or her Amateur license
4BA-1E.2

What types of licenses or permits are required before an amateur operator may
transmit from a vessel registered in the US?

No amateur license is required outside of international waters
Any Amateur Radio license or Reciprocal Operating Permit issued by the FCC
Only amateur licensees General class or above may transmit on a vessel
registered in the US
Only an Amateur Extra Class licensee may operate aboard a vessel registered
in the US
4BA-2A.1


What is an FCC Reciprocal Operating Permit?

An FCC authorization to a holder of an amateur license issued by certain

foreign governments to operate an Amateur Radio station in the United

States and its possessions
An FCC permit to allow a United States licensed amateur to operate his
station in a foreign nation, except Canada
An FCC permit allowing a foreign licensed amateur to handle traffic between
the United States and the amateur's own nation, subject to FCC rules on
traffic handling and third-party messages
An FCC permit to a commercial telecommunications company allowing that
company to pay amateurs to handle traffic during emergencies
4BA-2B.1

Who is eligible for an FCC Reciprocal Operating Permit?

Anyone holding a valid Amateur Radio license issued by a foreign government
Anyone holding a valid Amateur Radio license issued by a foreign government
with which the United States has a reciprocal operating agreement,
providing that person is not a United States citizen
Anyone who holds a valid Amateur Radio license issued by a foreign
government with which the United States has a reciprocal operating agreement
Anyone other than a United States citizen who holds a valid Amateur Radio
or shortwave listener's license issued by a foreign government
4BA-2B.2


Under what circumstances, if any, is a US citizen holding a foreign Amateur
Radio license eligible to obtain an FCC Reciprocal Operating Permit?

A US Citizen is not eligible to obtain a Reciprocal Operating Permit for

use in the United States
Only if the applicant brings his or her equipment from the foreign country
Only if that person is unable to qualify for a United States amateur license
If the applicant does not hold an FCC license as of the date of
application, but had held a US amateur license other than Novice class less
than 10 years before the date of application
4BA-2C.1

What are the operator frequency privileges authorized by an FCC Reciprocal
Operating Permit?

Those authorized to a holder of the equivalent United States amateur

license, unless the FCC specifies otherwise by endorsement on the permit
Those that the holder of the Reciprocal Operating Permit would have if he
were in his own country
Only those frequencies permitted to United States amateurs that the holder
of the Reciprocal Operating Permit would have in his own country, unless
the FCC specifies otherwise
Only those frequencies approved by the International Amateur Radio Union,
unless the FCC specifies otherwise
4BA-2D.1

How does an alien operator identify an Amateur Radio station when operating
under an FCC Reciprocal Operating Permit?

By using only his or her own call
By using his or her own call, followed by the city and state in the United
States or possessions closest to his or her present location
By using his or her own call, followed by the letter(s) and number
indicating the United States call-letter district of his or her location at
the time of the contact, with the city and state nearest the location
specified once during each contact
By using his or her own call sign, followed by the serial number of the
Reciprocal Operating Permit and the call-letter district number of his or
her present location
4BA-3A.1

What is RACES?

An Amateur Radio network for providing emergency communications during

long-distance athletic contests
The Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service
The Radio Amateur Corps for Engineering Services
An Amateur Radio network providing emergency communications for
transoceanic boat or aircraft races
4BA-3B.1


What is the purpose of RACES?

To provide civil-defense communications during emergencies
To provide emergency communications for transoceanic boat or aircraft races
To provide routine and emergency communications for long-distance athletic
events
To provide routine and emergency communications for large-scale
international events, such as the Olympic games
4BA-3C.1

With what other organization must an Amateur Radio station be registered
before RACES registration is permitted?

The Amateur Radio Emergency Service
The US Department of Defense
A Civil Defense organization
The Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC Field Operations Bureau
4BA-3D.1

Who may be the control operator of a RACES station?

Anyone who holds a valid FCC amateur operator's license other than Novice
Only an Amateur Extra Class licensee
Anyone who holds an FCC Amateur Radio license other than Novice and is
certified by a Civil Defense organization
Anyone who holds an FCC Amateur Radio license and is certified by a Civil
Defense organization
4BA-3E.1


What additional operator privileges are granted to an Amateur Extra Class
operator registered with RACES?

None
Permission to operate CW on 5167.5 kHz
Permission to operate an unattended HF packet radio station
Permission to operate on the 237-MHz Civil Defense band
4BA-3F.1

What frequencies are normally available for RACES operation?

Only those frequencies authorized by the ARRL Section Emergency Coordinator
Only those frequencies listed in Section 97.8
Only transmitting frequencies in the top 25 kHz of each Amateur band
All frequencies available to the Amateur Radio Service
4BA-3G.1


What type of emergency can cause a limitation on the frequencies available for
RACES operation?

An emergency in which the President invokes the War Emergency Powers under

the provisions of the Communications Act of 1934
RACES operations must be confined to a single frequency band if the
emergency is contained within a single state
RACES operations must be conducted on a VHF band if the emergency is
confined to an area 25 miles or less in radius
The Red Cross may limit available frequencies if the emergency involves no
immediate danger of loss of life
4BA-3H.1

Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES?

Only Extra Class Amateur Radio stations
Any licensed Amateur Radio station except a station licensed to a Novice
Any licensed Amateur Radio station certified by the responsible Civil
Defense organization
Any licensed Amateur Radio station other than a station licensed to a
Novice, providing the station is certified by the responsible Civil Defense
organization
4BA-3H.2


What are the points of communications for amateur stations operated in RACES
and certified by the responsible Civil Defense organization as registered with
that organization?

Any RACES, Civil Defense, or Disaster Communications Service station
Any RACES stations and any FCC licensed amateur stations except stations
licensed to Novices
Any FCC licensed amateur station or a station in the Disaster
Communications Service
Any FCC licensed amateur station except stations licensed to Novices
4BA-3I.1

What are permissible communications in RACES?

Any communications concerning local traffic nets
Any communications concerning the Amateur Radio Emergency Service
Any communications concerning national defense and security or immediate
safety of people and property that are authorized by the area Civil Defense
organization
Any communications concerning national defense or security or immediate
safety of people or property but only when a state of emergency has been
declared by the President, the governor, or other authorized official, and
then only so long as the state of emergency endures
4BA-4A.1

What are the purposes of the Amateur Satellite Service?

It is a radionavigation service using stations on earth satellites for the

same purposes as those of the Amateur Radio Service
It is a radiocommunication service using stations on earth satellites for
weather information
It is a radiocommunication service using stations on earth satellites for
the same purpose as those of the Amateur Radio Service
It is a radiolocation service using stations on earth satellites for
Amateur Radio operators engaged in satellite radar experimentation
4BA-4B.1


What are some frequencies available for space operation?

7.0-7.1, 14.00-14.25, 21.00-21.45, 24.890-24.990, 28.00-29.70, 144-146,

435-438 and 24,000-24,050 MHz
7.0-7.3, 21.00-21.45, 28.00-29.70, 144-146, 432-438 and 24,000-24,050 MHz
All frequencies available to the Amateur Radio Service, providing
license-class, power and emission-type restrictions are observed
Only frequencies available to Amateur Extra Class licensees
4BA-4C-1.1

What is the term used to describe an earth-to-space Amateur Radio
communication that controls the functions of an amateur satellite?

Space operation
Telecommand operation
Earth operation
Control operation
4BA-4C-2.1

Which amateur stations are eligible for telecommand operation?

Any Amateur Radio licensee except Novice
Amateur Extra Class licensees only
Telecommand operation is not permitted in the amateur satellite service
Any Amateur Radio station designated by the space station licensee
4BA-4D-1.1

What term is used to describe space-to-earth transmissions that communicate
the results of measurements made by a station in space operation?

Data transmission
Frame check sequence
Telemetry
Telecommand operation
4BA-4E-1.1

What is the term used to describe Amateur Radio communication from a station
that is beyond the major portion of the earth's atmosphere?

EME
Exospheric operation
Downlink
Space operation
4BA-4E-2.1

Which amateur stations are eligible for space operation?

Any licensee except Novice
General, Advanced and Extra Class licensees only
Advanced and Extra Class licensees only
Amateur Extra Class licensees only
4BA-4E-4.1

When must the licensee of a station scheduled for space operation give the FCC
written pre-space notification?

3 months to 72 hours prior to initiating space operation
6 months to 3 months prior to initiating space operation
12 months to 3 months prior to initiating space operation
27 months to 3 months prior to initiating space operation
4BA-4E-4.2

When must the licensee of a station in space operation give the FCC written
in-space notification?

No later than 24 hours following initiation of space operation
No later than 72 hours following initiation of space operation
No later than 7 days following initiation of space operation
No later than 30 days following initiation of space operation
4BA-4E-4.3

When must the licensee of a station in space operation give the FCC written
post-space notification?

No later than 48 hours after termination is complete, under normal

circumstances
No later than 72 hours after termination is complete, under normal
circumstances
No later than 7 days after termination is complete, under normal
circumstances
No later than 3 months after termination is complete, under normal
circumstances
4BA-4F-1.1


What term describes earth-to-space-to-earth Amateur Radio communication by
means of radio signals automatically retransmitted by a station in space
operation?

Earth operation
ESE
Repeater operation
Auxiliary operation
4BA-4F-2.1


Which amateur stations are eligible for earth operation?

Any Amateur Radio station
Amateur Extra Class licensees only
Any licensee except Novice
A special license issued by the FCC is required before any Amateur Radio
station is placed in earth operation
4BA-5A.1

What is a Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator?

An organization that is authorized to administer FCC Amateur Radio license

examinations to candidates for the Novice license
An organization that is authorized to administer FCC Amateur Radio
examinations for any class of license other than Novice
An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to
coordinate the efforts of Volunteer Examiners in preparing and
administering examinations for Amateur Radio operator licenses
An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to
coordinate efforts of Volunteer Examiners in preparing and administering
examinations for Amateur Radio operator licenses other than Novice
4BA-5B.1

What are the requirements to be a VEC

Be engaged in the manufacture and/or sale of amateur equipment or in the

coordination of amateur activities throughout at least one call-letter

district; and agree to abide by FCC Rules concerning administration of

Amateur Radio examinations
Be organized at least partially for the purpose of furthering Amateur
Radio; be at least regional in scope; and agree to abide by FCC Rules
concerning coordination of Amateur Radio examinations
Be organized at least partially for the purpose of furthering Amateur
Radio; be, at the most, county-wide in scope; and agree to abide by FCC
Rules concerning administration of Amateur Radio examinations
Be engaged in a business related to Amateur Radio; and agree to administer
Amateur Radio examinations in accordance with FCC Rules throughout at least
one call-letter district
4BA-5C.1


What are the functions of a VEC?

Accredit Volunteer Examiners; collect candidates' application forms, answer

sheets and test results and forward the applications to the FCC; maintain

pools of questions for Amateur Radio examinations; and perform other

clerical tasks in accordance with FCC Rules
Assemble, print and sell FCC-approved examination forms; accredit Volunteer
Examiners; collect candidates' answer sheets and forward them to the FCC;
screen applications for completeness and authenticity; and perform other
clerical tasks in accordance with FCC Rules
Accredit Volunteer Examiners; certify that examiners' equipment is
type-accepted by the FCC; assemble, print and distribute FCC-approved
examination forms; and perform other clerical tasks in accordance with FCC
Rules
Maintain pools of questions for Amateur Radio examinations; administer code
and theory examinations; score and forward the test papers to the FCC so
that the appropriate license may be issued to each successful candidate
4BA-5C.2


Where are the questions listed that must be used in written examinations?

In the appropriate VEC question pool
In PR Bulletin 1035C
In PL 97-259
In the appropriate FCC Report and Order
4BA-5C.3


How is an Element 3(A) examination prepared?

By Advanced or Extra Class Volunteer Examiners or Volunteer-Examiner

Coordinators selecting questions from the appropriate VEC question pool
By Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators selecting questions from the appropriate
FCC bulletin
By Extra Class Volunteer Examiners selecting questions from the appropriate
FCC bulletin
By the FCC selecting questions from the appropriate VEC question pool
4BA-5C.4


How is an Element 3(B) examination prepared?

By Extra Class Volunteer Examiners or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators

selecting questions from the appropriate VEC question pool
By Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators selecting questions from the appropriate
FCC bulletin
By Extra Class Volunteer Examiners selecting questions from the appropriate
FCC bulletin
By the FCC selecting questions from the appropriate VEC question pool
4BA-5C.5


How is an Element 4(A) examination prepared?

By Extra Class Volunteer Examiners or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators

selecting questions from the appropriate VEC question pool
By Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators selecting questions from the appropriate
FCC bulletin
By Extra Class Volunteer Examiners selecting questions from the appropriate
FCC bulletin
By the FCC selecting questions from the appropriate VEC question pool
4BA-5C.6


How is an Element 4(B) examination prepared?

By Extra Class Volunteer Examiners or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators

selecting questions from the appropriate VEC question pool
By Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators selecting questions from the appropriate
FCC bulletin
By Extra Class Volunteer Examiners selecting questions from the appropriate
FCC bulletin
By the FCC selecting questions from the appropriate VEC question pool
4BA-5E.1

What organization coordinates the dates and times for scheduling Amateur Radio
examinations?

The FCC
A VEC
The IARU
Local radio clubs
4BA-5D.1


Under what circumstances, if any, may a VEC refuse to accredit a person as a
VE on the basis of membership in an Amateur Radio organization?

Under no circumstances
Only when the prospective VE is an ARRL member
Only when the prospective VE is not a member of the local Amateur Radio club
Only when the club is at least regional in scope
4BA-5E.2


Under what circumstances, if any, may a VEC refuse to accredit a person as a
VE on the basis of lack of membership in an Amateur Radio organization?

Under no circumstances
Only when the prospective VE is not an ARRL member
Only when the club is at least regional in scope
Only when the prospective VE is a not a member of the local Amateur Radio
club giving the examinations
4BA-5F.1

Under what circumstance, if any, may an organization engaged in the
manufacture of equipment used in connection with Amateur Radio transmissions
be a VEC?

Under no circumstances
If the organization's amateur-related sales are very small
If the organization is manufacturing very specialized amateur equipment
Only upon FCC approval that preventive measures have been taken to preclude
any possible conflict of interest
4BA-5F.2

Under what circumstances, if any, may a person who is an employee of a company
that is engaged in the distribution of equipment used in connection with
Amateur Radio transmissions be a VE?

Under no circumstances
Only if the employee's work is not directly related to that part of the
company involved in the manufacture or distribution of amateur equipment
Only if the employee has no financial interest in the company
Only if the employee is an Extra Class licensee
4BA-5F.3


Under what circumstances, if any, may a person who owns a significant interest
in a company that is engaged in the preparation of publications used in
preparation for obtaining an amateur operator license be a VE?

Under no circumstances
Only if the organization's amateur-related sales are very small
Only if the organization is publishing very specialized material
Only if the person is an Extra Class licensee
4BA-5F.4

Under what circumstances, if any, may an organization engaged in the
distribution of publications used in preparation for obtaining an amateur
operator license be a VEC?

Under no circumstances
Only if the organization's amateur publishing business is very small
Only if the organization is selling the publication at cost to examinees
Only upon FCC approval that preventive measures have been taken to preclude
any possible conflict of interest
4
4BA-5G.1


Who may reimburse VEs and VECs for out-of-pocket expenses incurred in
preparing, processing or administering examinations?

Examinees
FCC
ARRL
FCC and Examiners
4BA-5G.2

What action must a VEC take against a VE who accepts reimbursement and fails
to provide the annual expense certification?

Suspend the VE's accreditation for 1 year
Disaccredit the VE
Suspend the VE's accreditation and report the information to the FCC
Suspend the VE's accreditation for 6 months
4BA-5G.3


What type of expense records must be maintained by a VE who accepts
reimbursement?

All out-of-pocket expenses and reimbursements from the examinees
All out-of-pocket expenses only
Reimbursements from examiners only
FCC reimbursements only
4BA-5G.4

For what period of time must a VE maintain records of out-of-pocket expenses
and reimbursements for each examination session for which reimbursement is
accepted?

1 year
2 years
3 years
4 years
4BA-5G.5

By what date each year must a VE forward to the VEC a certification concerning
expenses for which reimbursement was accepted?

December 15 following the year for which the reimbursement was accepted
January 15 following the year for which the reimbursement was accepted
April 15 following the year for which the reimbursement was accepted
October 15 following the year for which the reimbursement was accepted
4BA-5G.6


For what type of services may a VE be reimbursed for out-of-pocket expenses?

Preparing, processing or administering examinations above the Novice class
Preparing, processing or administering examinations including the Novice
class
A VE cannot be reimbursed for out-of-pocket expenses
Only for preparation of examination elements
4BA-6A.1

What is an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

A General class radio amateur who is accredited by a VEC to administer

examinations to applicants for Amateur Radio licenses
An Amateur Radio operator who is accredited by a VEC to administer
examinations to applicants for Amateur Radio licenses
An Amateur Radio operator who administers examinations to applicants for
Amateur Radio licenses for a fee
An FCC staff member who tests volunteers who want to administer Amateur
Radio examinations
4BA-6A.2

What is an accredited VE?

A General class radio amateur who is accredited by a VEC to administer

examinations to applicants for Amateur Radio licenses
An Amateur Radio operator who is accredited by a VEC to administer
examinations to applicants for Amateur Radio licenses
An Amateur Radio operator who administers examinations to applicants for
Amateur Radio licenses for a fee
An FCC staff member who tests volunteers who want to administer Amateur
Radio examinations
4BA-6B.1

What are the requirements for a Volunteer Examiner administering an
examination for a Technician class operator license?

The Volunteer Examiner must be a Novice class licensee accredited by a

Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator
The Volunteer Examiner must be an Advanced or Extra Class licensee
accredited by a Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator
The Volunteer Examiner must be an Extra Class licensee accredited by a
Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator
The Volunteer Examiner must be a General class licensee accredited by a
Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator
4BA-6B.2

What are the requirements for a Volunteer Examiner administering an
examination for a General class operator license?

The examiner must hold an Advanced class license and be accredited by a VEC
The examiner must hold an Extra Class license and be accredited by a VEC
The examiner must hold a General class license and be accredited by a VEC
The examiner must hold an Extra Class license to administer the written
test element, but an Advanced class examiner may administer the CW test
element
4BA-6B.3

What are the requirements for a Volunteer Examiner administering an
examination for an Advanced class operator license?

The examiner must hold an Advanced class license and be accredited by a VEC
The examiner must hold an Extra Class license and be accredited by a VEC
The examiner must hold a General class license and be accredited by a VEC
The examiner must hold an Extra Class license to administer the written
test element, but an Advanced class examiner may administer the CW test
element
4BA-6B.4

What are the requirements for a Volunteer Examiner administering an
examination for an Amateur Extra Class operator license?

The examiner must hold an Advanced class license and be accredited by a VEC
The examiner must hold an Extra Class license and be accredited by a VEC
The examiner must hold a General class license and be accredited by a VEC
The examiner must hold an Extra Class license to administer the written
test element, but an Advanced class examiner may administer the CW test
element
4BA-6B.5


When is VE accreditation necessary?

Always in order to administer a Technician or higher class license

examination
Always in order to administer a Novice or higher class license examination
Sometimes in order to administer an Advanced or higher class license
examination
VE accreditation is not necessary in order to administer a General or
higher class license examination
4BA-6C.1

What is VE accreditation?

The process by which all Advanced and Extra Class licensees are

automatically given permission to conduct Amateur Radio examinations
The process by which the FCC tests volunteers who wish to coordinate
Amateur Radio license examinations
The process by which the prospective VE requests his or her requirements
for accreditation
The process by which each VEC makes sure its VEs meet FCC requirements to
serve as Volunteer Examiners
4BA-6C.2


What are the requirements for VE accreditation?

Hold an Advanced class license or higher; be at least 18 years old; not

have any conflict of interest; and never had his or her amateur license

suspended or revoked
Hold an Advanced class license or higher; be at least 16 years old; and not
have any conflict of interest
Hold an Extra Class license or higher; be at least 18 years old; and be a
member of ARRL
There are no requirements for accreditation, other than holding a General
or higher class license
4BA-6C.3

The services of which persons seeking to be VEs will not be accepted by the
FCC?

Persons with Advanced class licenses
Persons being between 18 and 21 years of age
Persons who have ever had their amateur licenses suspended or revoked
Persons who are employees of the Federal Government
4BA-6D.1

Under what circumstances, if any, may a person be compensated for services as
a VE?

When the VE spends more than 4 hours at the test session
When the VE loses a day's pay to administer the exam
When the VE spends many hours preparing for the test session
Under no circumstances
4BA-6D.2


How much money, if any, may a person accept for services as a VE?

None
Up to a half day's pay if the VE spends more than 4 hours at the test
session
Up to a full day's pay if the VE spends more than 4 hours preparing for the
test session
Up to $50 if the VE spends more than 4 hours at the test session
4BA-7A-1.1


What is an Element 1(A) examination intended to prove?

The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 5 WPM
The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 13 WPM
The applicant's knowledge of Novice class theory and regulations
The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 20 WPM
4BA-7A-1.2

What is an Element 1(B) examination intended to prove?

The applicant's knowledge of Novice class theory and regulations
The applicant's knowledge of General class theory and regulations
The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 5 WPM
The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 13 WPM
4BA-7A-1.3


What is an Element 1(C) examination intended to prove?

The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 20 WPM
The applicant's knowledge of Amateur Extra Class theory and regulations
The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 13 WPM
The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 5 WPM
4BA-7A-1.4

What is Examination Element 2?

The 5-WPM amateur Morse code examination
The 13-WPM amateur Morse code examination
The written examination for the Novice class operator license
The written examination for the Technician class operator license
4BA-7A-1.5

What is Examination Element 3(A)?

The 5-WPM amateur Morse code examination
The 13-WPM amateur Morse code examination
The written examination for the Technician class operator license
The written examination for the General class operator license
4BA-7A-1.6

What is Examination Element 3(B)?

The 5-WPM amateur Morse code examination
The 13-WPM amateur Morse code examination
The written examination for the Technician class operator license
The written examination for the General class operator license
4BA-7A-1.7

What is Examination Element 4(A)?

The written examination for the Technician class operator license
The 20-WPM amateur Morse code examination
The written examination for the Advanced class operator license
The written examination for the Amateur Extra Class operator license
4BA-7A-1.8

What is Examination Element 4(B)?

The written examination for the Technician class operator license
The 20-WPM amateur Morse code examination
The written examination for the Advanced class operator license
The written examination for the Amateur Extra Class operator license
4BA-7A-2.1


Who must prepare Examination Element 1(B)?

Extra Class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or Volunteer-Examiner

Coordinators
Advanced class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or
Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
The FCC
The Field Operations Bureau
4BA-7A-2.2

Who must prepare Examination Element 1(C)?

The FCC
The Field Operations Bureau
Advanced class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or
Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
Extra Class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or Volunteer-Examiner
Coordinators
4BA-7A-2.3


Who must prepare Examination Element 3(A)?

Advanced or Extra Class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or

Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
The FCC
The Field Operations Bureau
Advanced or General class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or
Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
4BA-7A-2.4


Who must prepare Examination Element 3(B)?

Extra Class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or Volunteer-Examiner

Coordinators
The FCC
The Field Operations Bureau
Advanced or General class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or
Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
4BA-7A-2.5

Who must prepare Examination Element 4(A)?

Advanced or Extra Class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or

Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
The FCC
The Field Operations Bureau
Extra Class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or Volunteer-Examiner
Coordinators
4BA-7A-2.6

Who must prepare Examination Element 4(B)?

Advanced or Extra Class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or

Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
The FCC
The Field Operations Bureau
Extra Class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or Volunteer-Examiner
Coordinators
4BA-7B.1

What examination elements are required for an Amateur Extra Class operator
license?

1(C) and 4(B)
3(B), 4(A) and 4(B)
1(B), 2, 3(A), 4(A) and 4(B)
1(C), 2, 3(A), 3(B), 4(A) and 4(B)
4BA-7B.2

What examination elements are required for an Advanced class operator license?

1(A), 2, 3(A), 3(B) and 4(A)
1(B), 3(A) and 3(B)
1(B) and 4(A)
1(B), 2, 3(A), 3(B) and 4(A)
4BA-7B.3


What examination elements are required for a General class operator license?

1(B), 2, 3(A) and 3(B)
1(A), 2, 3(A) and 3(B)
1(A), 3(A) and 3(B)
1(B), 3(A) and 3(B)
4BA-7B.4

What examination elements are required for a Technician class operator license?

1(A) and 2
1(A) and 3(A)
1(A), 2 and 3(A)
2 and 3(A)
4BA-7C.1


What examination credit must be given to an applicant who holds a valid Novice
class operator license?

Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A) and 2
Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B) and 3(A)
Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B) and 2
Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A) and 3(A)
4BA-7C.2

What examination credit must be given to an applicant who holds a valid
Technician class operator license issued after March 20, 1987?

Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A) and 2
Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A), 2 and 3(A)
Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B), 2 and 3(A)
Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B), 3(A) and 3(B)
4BA-7C.3

What examination credit must be given to an applicant who holds a valid
Technician class operator license issued before March 21, 1987?

Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A), 2 and 3(B)
Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A), 2, 3(A) and 3(B)
Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B), 2, 3(A) and 4(A)
Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B), 3(A) and 3(B)
4BA-7C.4

What examination credit must be given to an applicant who holds a valid
General class operator license?

Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B), 2, 3(A), 3(B) and 4(A)
Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A), 3(A), 3(B) and 4(A)
Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A), 2, 3(A), 3(B) and 4(B)
Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B), 2, 3(A) and 3(B)
4BA-7C.5

What examination credit must be given to an applicant who holds a valid
Advanced class operator license?

Credit for successful completion of Element 4(A)
Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B) and 4(A)
Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B), 2, 3(A), 3(B) and 4(A)
Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(C), 3(A), 3(B), 4(A) and 4(B)
4BA-7C.6

What examination credit, if any, may be given to an applicant who holds a
valid amateur operator license issued by another country?

Credit for successful completion of any elements that may be identical to

those required for U.S. licensees
No credit
Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A), 1(B) and 1(C)
Credit for successful completion of Elements 2, 3(A), 3(B), 4(A) and 4(B)
4BA-7C.7


What examination credit, if any, may be given to an applicant who holds a
valid amateur operator license issued by any other United States government
agency than the FCC?

No credit
Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A), 1(B) or 1(C)
Credit for successful completion of Elements 4(A) and 4(B)
Credit for successful completion of Element 1(C)
4BA-7C.8

What examination credit must be given to an applicant who holds a valid FCC
commercial radiotelegraph license?

No credit
Credit for successful completion of element 1(B) only
Credit for successful completion of elements 1(A), 1(B) or 1(C)
Credit for successful completion of element 1(A) only
4BA-7C.9

What examination credit must be given to the holder of a valid Certificate of
Successful Completion of Examination?

Credit for previously completed written examination elements only
Credit for the code speed associated with the previously completed
telegraphy examination elements only
Credit for previously completed written and telegraphy examination elements
only
Credit for previously completed commercial examination elements only
4BA-7D.1

Who determines where and when examinations for amateur operator licenses are
to be administered?

The FCC
The Section Manager
The applicants
The administering Volunteer Examiner Team
4BA-7D.2


Where must the examiners be and what must they be doing during an examination?

The examiners must be present and observing the candidate(s) throughout the

entire examination
The examiners must be absent to allow the candidate(s) to complete the
entire examination in accordance with the traditional honor system
The examiners must be present to observe the candidate(s) throughout the
administration of telegraphy examination elements only
The examiners must be present to observe the candidate(s) throughout the
administration of written examination elements only
4BA-7D.3

Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an
examination?

The VEC
The FCC
The administering Volunteer Examiners
The candidates and the administering Volunteer Examiners
4BA-7D.4

What should an examiner do when a candidate fails to comply with the
examiner's instructions?

Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply with the examiner's

instructions will result in termination of the examination
Immediately terminate the examination
Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but refuse to issue a
Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination for any elements passed
by fraudulent means
Immediately terminate the examination and report the violation to federal
law enforcement officials
4BA-7D.5

What must the candidate do at the completion of the examination?

Complete a brief written evaluation of the examination session
Return all test papers to the examiners
Return all test papers to the examiners and wait for them to be graded
before leaving the examination site
Pay the registration fee
4BA-7E.1

When must the test papers be graded?

Within 5 days of completion of an examination element
Within 30 days of completion of an examination element
Immediately upon completion of an examination element
Within 10 days of completion of an examination element
4BA-7E.2

Who must grade the test papers?

The ARRL
The administering Volunteer Examiners
The Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator
The FCC
4BA-7E.3


How do the examiners inform a candidate who does not score a passing grade?

Give the percentage of the questions answered correctly and return the

application to the candidate
Give the percentage of the questions answered incorrectly and return the
application to the candidate
Tell the candidate that he or she failed and return the application to the
candidate
Show how the incorrect answers should have been answered and give a copy of
the corrected answer sheet to the candidate
4BA-7E.4

What must the examiners do when the candidate scores a passing grade?

Give the percentage of the questions answered correctly and return the

application to the candidate
Tell the candidate that he or she passed
Issue the candidate an operator license
Issue the candidate a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination
for the appropriate exam element(s)
4BA-7E.5


Within what time limit after administering an exam must the examiners submit
the applications and test papers from successful candidates to the VEC?

Within 10 days
Within 15 days
Within 30 days
Within 90 days
4BA-7E.6

To whom do the examiners submit successful candidates' applications and test
papers?

To the candidate
To the coordinating VEC
To the local radio club
To the regional Section Manager
4BA-7F.1


When an applicant passes an examination to upgrade his or her operator
license, under what authority may he or she be the control operator of an
amateur station with the privileges of the higher operator class?

That of the Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination issued by

the VE Team that administered the examination
That of the ARRL
Applicants already licensed in the Amateur Radio Service may not use their
newly earned privileges until they receive their permanent amateur station
and operator licenses
Applicants may only use their newly earned privileges during emergencies
pending issuance of their permanent amateur station and operator licenses
4BA-7F.2

What is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination?

A document printed by the FCC
A document required for already licensed applicants operating with
privileges of an amateur operator class higher than that of their permanent
amateur operator licenses
A document a candidate may use for an indefinite period of time to receive
credit for successful completion of any written element
A permanent Amateur Radio station and operator license certificate issued
to a newly-upgraded licensee by the FCC within 90 days of the completion of
the examination
4BA-7F.3

How long may a successful applicant operate a station under Section 97.35 with
the rights and privileges of the higher operator class for which the applicant
has passed the appropriate examinations?

30 days or until issuance of a permanent operator and station license,

whichever comes first
3 months or until issuance of the permanent operator and station license,
whichever comes first
6 months or until issuance of the permanent operator and station license,
whichever comes first
1 year or until issuance of the permanent operator and station license,
whichever comes first
4BA-7F.4

How must the station call sign be amended when operating under the temporary
authority authorized by Section 97.35?

The applicant must use an identifier code as a prefix to his or her present

call sign, e.g., when using voice; "interim AE KA1MJP"
The applicant must use an identifier code as a suffix to his or her present
call sign, e.g., when using voice; "KA1MJP temporary AE"
By adding after the call sign, when using voice, the phrase "operating
temporary Technician, General, Advanced or Extra"
By adding to the call sign, when using CW, the slant bar followed by the
letters T, G, A or E
'SUBELEMENT 4BB -- Operating Procedures (4 questions)
4
4BB-1A.1

What is an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?

A pass from west to east
A pass from east to west
A pass from south to north
A pass from north to south
4BB-1A.2


What is a descending pass for an amateur satellite?

A pass from north to south
A pass from west to east
A pass from east to west
A pass from south to north
4BB-1A.3

What is the period of an amateur satellite?

An orbital arc that extends from 60 degrees west longitude to 145 degrees

west longitude
The point on an orbit where satellite height is minimum
The amount of time it takes for a satellite to complete one orbit
The time it takes a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee
4BB-1B.1

What is Mode A in an amateur satellite?

Operation through a 10-meter receiver on a satellite that retransmits on 2

meters
The lowest frequency used in Phase 3 transponders
The highest frequency used in Phase 3 translators
Operation through a 2-meter receiver on a satellite that retransmits on 10
meters
4BB-1B.2

What is Mode B in an amateur satellite?

Operation through a 10-meter receiver on a satellite that retransmits on 2

meters
Operation through a 70-centimeter receiver on a satellite that retransmits
on 2 meters
The beacon output
A codestore device used to record messages
4BB-1B.3

What is Mode J in an amateur satellite?

Operation through a 70-centimeter receiver on a satellite that retransmits

on 2 meters
Operation through a 2-meter receiver on a satellite that retransmits on 70
centimeters
Operation through a 2-meter receiver on a satellite that retransmits on 10
meters
Operation through a 70-centimeter receiver on a satellite that retransmits
on 10 meters
4BB-1B.4

What is Mode L in an amateur satellite?

Operation through a 70-centimeter receiver on a satellite that retransmits

on 10 meters
Operation through a 23-centimeter receiver on a satellite that retransmits
on 70 centimeters
Operation through a 70-centimeter receiver on a satellite that retransmits
on 23 centimeters
Operation through a 10-meter receiver on a satellite that retransmits on 70
centimeters
4BB-1C.1

What is a linear transponder?

A repeater that passes only linear or CW signals
A device that receives and retransmits signals of any mode in a certain
passband
An amplifier for SSB transmissions
A device used to change FM to SSB
4BB-1C.2


What are the two basic types of linear transponders used in amateur satellites?

Inverting and non-inverting
Geostationary and elliptical
Phase 2 and Phase 3
Amplitude modulated and frequency modulated
4BB-1D.1

Why does the downlink frequency appear to vary by several kHz during a
low-earth-orbit amateur satellite pass?

The distance between the satellite and ground station is changing, causing

the Kepler effect
The distance between the satellite and ground station is changing, causing
the Bernoulli effect
The distance between the satellite and ground station is changing, causing
the Boyles' law effect
The distance between the satellite and ground station is changing, causing
the Doppler effect
4BB-1D.2


Why does the received signal from a Phase III amateur satellite exhibit a
fairly rapid pulsed fading effect?

Because the satellite is rotating
Because of ionospheric absorption
Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude
Because of the Doppler effect
4BB-1D.3

What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation
and Faraday rotation?

A nonpolarized antenna
A circularly polarized antenna
An isotropic antenna
A log-periodic dipole array
4BB-2A.1


How often is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan television system?

30 times per second
60 times per second
90 times per second
120 times per second
4BB-2A.2

How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan television frame?

30
60
525
1050
4BB-2A.3

How is the interlace scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan television
system?

By scanning the field from top to bottom
By scanning the field from bottom to top
By scanning even numbered lines in one field and odd numbered ones in the
next
By scanning from left to right in one field and right to left in the next
4BB-2A.4

What is blanking in a video signal?

Synchronization of the horizontal and vertical sync-pulses
Turning off the scanning beam while it is traveling from right to left and
from bottom to top
Turning off the scanning beam at the conclusion of a transmission
Transmitting a black and white test pattern
4BB-2A.5


What is the standard video voltage level between the sync tip and the whitest
white at TV camera outputs and modulator inputs?

1 volt peak-to-peak
120 IEEE units
12 volts DC
5 volts RMS
4BB-2A.6

What is the bandwidth of a fast-scan television transmission?

3 kHz
10 kHz
25 kHz
6 MHz
4BB-2A.7

What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for black?

0%
12.5%
70%
100%
4BB-2A.8

What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for white?

0%
12.5%
70%
100%
4BB-2A.9

What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for blanking?

0%
12.5%
75%
100%
'SUBELEMENT 4BC -- Radio Wave Propagation (2 questions)
2
4BC-1.1

What is the maximum separation between two stations communicating by
moonbounce?

500 miles maximum, if the moon is at perigee
2,000 miles maximum, if the moon is at apogee
5,000 miles maximum, if the moon is at perigee
Any distance as long as the stations have a mutual lunar window
4BC-1.2

What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal?

A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal
A fluttery, rapid irregular fading
A gradual loss of signal as the sun rises
The returning echo is several Hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted
signal
4BC-1.3


What are the best days to schedule EME contacts?

When the moon is at perigee
When the moon is full
When the moon is at apogee
When the weather at both stations is clear
4BC-1.4

What type of receiving system is required for EME communications?

Equipment capable of reception on 14 MHz
Equipment with very low dynamic range
Equipment with very low gain
Equipment with very low noise figures
4BC-1.5

What type of transmitting system is required for EME communications?

A transmitting system capable of operation on the 21 MHz band
A transmitting system capable of producing a very high ERP
A transmitting system using an unmodulated carrier
A transmitting system with a high second harmonic output
4BC-2.1

When the earth's atmosphere is struck by a meteor, a cylindrical region of
free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?

The F1 layer
The E layer
The F2 layer
The D layer
4BC-2.2

Which range of frequencies is well suited for meteor-scatter communications?

1.8 - 1.9 MHz
10 - 14 MHz
28 - 148 MHz
220 - 450 MHz
4BC-3.1


What is transequatorial propagation?

Propagation between two points at approximately the same distance north and

south of the magnetic equator
Propagation between two points on the magnetic equator
Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the magnetic
equator
Propagation between any two stations at the same latitude
4BC-3.2

What is the maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?

About 1,000 miles
About 2,500 miles
About 5,000 miles
About 7,500 miles
4BC-3.3

What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?

Morning
Noon
Afternoon or early evening
Trans-equatorial propagation only works at night
4BC-4.1

If a beam antenna must be pointed in a direction 180 degrees away from a
station to receive the strongest signals, what type of propagation is probably
occurring?

Transequatorial propagation
Sporadic-E propagation
Long-path propagation
Auroral propagation
4BC-5.1

What is the name for a type of propagation in which radio signals travel along
the terminator, which separates daylight from darkness?

Transequatorial propagation
Sporadic-E propagation
Long-path propagation
Gray-line propagation
'SUBELEMENT 4BD -- Amateur Radio Practice (4 questions)
4
4BD-1A.1

How does a spectrum analyzer differ from a conventional time-domain
oscilloscope?

The oscilloscope is used to display electrical signals while the spectrum

analyzer is used to measure ionospheric reflection
The oscilloscope is used to display electrical signals in the frequency
domain while the spectrum analyzer is used to display electrical signals in
the time domain
The oscilloscope is used to display electrical signals in the time domain
while the spectrum analyzer is used to display electrical signals in the
frequency domain
The oscilloscope is used for displaying audio frequencies and the spectrum
analyzer is used for displaying radio frequencies
4BD-1A.2

What does the horizontal axis of a spectrum analyzer display?

Amplitude
Voltage
Resonance
Frequency
4BD-1A.3


What does the vertical axis of a spectrum analyzer display?

Amplitude
Duration
Frequency
Time
4BD-1B.1


What test instrument can be used to display spurious signals in the output of
a radio transmitter?

A spectrum analyzer
A wattmeter
A logic analyzer
A time-domain reflectometer
4BD-1B.2

What test instrument is used to display intermodulation distortion products
from an SSB transmitter?

A wattmeter
A spectrum analyzer
A logic analyzer
A time-domain reflectometer
4BD-2A.1

What advantage does a logic probe have over a voltmeter for monitoring logic
states in a circuit?

A logic probe has fewer leads to connect to a circuit than a voltmeter
A logic probe can be used to test analog and digital circuits
A logic probe can be powered by commercial AC lines
A logic probe is smaller and shows a simplified readout
4BD-2A.2

What piece of test equipment can be used to directly indicate high and low
logic states?

A galvanometer
An electroscope
A logic probe
A Wheatstone bridge
4BD-2A.3

What is a logic probe used to indicate?

A short-circuit fault in a digital-logic circuit
An open-circuit failure in a digital-logic circuit
A high-impedance ground loop
High and low logic states in a digital-logic circuit
4BD-2B.1


What piece of test equipment besides an oscilloscope can be used to indicate
pulse conditions in a digital-logic circuit?

A logic probe
A galvanometer
An electroscope
A Wheatstone bridge
4BD-3A.1


What is one of the most significant problems you might encounter when you try
to receive signals with a mobile station?

Ignition noise
Doppler shift
Radar interference
Mechanical vibrations
4BD-3A.2


What is the proper procedure for suppressing electrical noise in a mobile
station?

Apply shielding and filtering where necessary
Insulate all plane sheet metal surfaces from each other
Apply antistatic spray liberally to all non-metallic surfaces
Install filter capacitors in series with all DC wiring
4BD-3A.3

How can ferrite beads be used to suppress ignition noise?

Install them in the resistive high voltage cable every 2 years
Install them between the starter solenoid and the starter motor
Install them in the primary and secondary ignition leads
Install them in the antenna lead to the radio
4BD-3A.4

How can ensuring good electrical contact between connecting metal surfaces in
a vehicle reduce spark plug noise?

It reduces the spark gap distance, causing a lower frequency spark
It helps radiate the spark plug noise away from the vehicle
It reduces static buildup on the vehicle body
It encourages lower frequency electrical resonances in the vehicle
4BD-3B.1

How can alternator whine be minimized?

By connecting the radio's power leads to the battery by the longest

possible path
By connecting the radio's power leads to the battery by the shortest
possible path
By installing a high pass filter in series with the radio's DC power lead
to the vehicle's electrical system
By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead
4BD-3B.2

How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile alternator be
suppressed?

By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead and by

installing a blocking capacitor in the field lead
By connecting the radio's power leads to the battery by the longest
possible path and by installing a blocking capacitor in series with the
positive lead
By installing a high pass filter in series with the radio's power lead to
the vehicle's electrical system and by installing a low-pass filter in
parallel with the field lead
By connecting the radio power leads directly to the battery and by
installing coaxial capacitors in the alternator leads
4BD-3C.1

What is a major cause of atmospheric static?

Sunspots
Thunderstorms
Airplanes
Meteor showers
4BD-3D.1

How can you determine if a line-noise interference problem is being generated
within your home?

Check the power-line voltage with a time-domain reflectometer
Observe the AC waveform on an oscilloscope
Turn off the main circuit breaker and listen on a battery-operated radio
Observe the power-line voltage on a spectrum analyzer
4BD-4.1


What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

It has a bidirectional pattern broadside to the loop
It is non-rotatable
It receives equally well in all directions
It is practical for use only on VHF bands
4BD-4.2

What directional pattern is desirable for a direction-finding antenna?

A non-cardioid pattern
Good front-to-back and front-to-side ratios
Good top-to-bottom and front-to-side ratios
Shallow nulls
4BD-4.3

What is the triangulation method of direction finding?

Using the geometric angle of ground waves and sky waves emanating from the

same source to locate the signal source
A fixed receiving station uses three beam headings to plot the signal
source on a map
Beam headings from several receiving locations are used to plot the signal
source on a map
The use of three vertical antennas to indicate the location of the signal
source
4BD-4.4

Why is an RF attenuator desirable in a receiver used for direction finding?

It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal
It eliminates the effects of isotropic radiation
It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern nulls
It prevents receiver overload from extremely strong signals
4BD-4.5


What is a sense antenna?

A vertical antenna added to a loop antenna to produce a cardioid reception

pattern
A horizontal antenna added to a loop antenna to produce a cardioid
reception pattern
A vertical antenna added to an Adcock antenna to produce an omnidirectional
reception pattern
A horizontal antenna added to an Adcock antenna to produce a cardioid
reception pattern
4BD-4.6

What type of antenna is most useful for sky-wave reception in radio direction
finding?

A log-periodic dipole array
An isotropic antenna
A circularly polarized antenna
An Adcock antenna
4BD-4.7

What is a loop antenna?

A circularly polarized antenna
A coil of wire used as an antenna in FM broadcast receivers
A wire loop used in radio direction finding
An antenna coupled to the feed line through an inductive loop of wire
4BD-4.8

How can the output voltage of a loop antenna be increased?

By reducing the permeability of the loop shield
By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop while reducing the area
of the loop structure
By reducing either the number of wire turns in the loop, or the area of the
loop structure
By increasing either the number of wire turns in the loop, or the area of
the loop structure
4BD-4.9

Why is an antenna system with a cardioid pattern desirable for a
direction-finding system?

The broad side responses of the cardioid pattern can be aimed at the

desired station
The deep null of the cardioid pattern can pinpoint the direction of the
desired station
The sharp peak response of the cardioid pattern can pinpoint the direction
of the desired station
The high radiation angle of the cardioid pattern is useful for
short-distance direction finding
4BD-4.10

What type of terrain can cause errors in direction finding?

Homogeneous terrain
Smooth grassy terrain
Varied terrain
Terrain with no buildings or mountains
'SUBELEMENT 4BE -- Electrical Principles (6 questions)
6
4BE-1.1

What is the photoconductive effect?

The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy
The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor junction
The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy
The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor junction
4BE-1.2


What happens to photoconductive material when light shines on it?

The conductivity of the material increases
The conductivity of the material decreases
The conductivity of the material stays the same
The conductivity of the material becomes temperature dependent
4BE-1.3

What happens to the resistance of a photoconductive material when light shines
on it?

It increases
It becomes temperature dependent
It stays the same
It decreases
4BE-1.4

What happens to the conductivity of a semiconductor junction when it is
illuminated?

It stays the same
It becomes temperature dependent
It increases
It decreases
4BE-1.5

What is an optocoupler?

A resistor and a capacitor
A frequency modulated helium-neon laser
An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser
An LED and a phototransistor
4BE-1.6


What is an optoisolator?

An LED and a phototransistor
A P-N junction that develops an excess positive charge when exposed to light
An LED and a capacitor
An LED and a solar cell
4BE-1.7

What is an optical shaft encoder?

An array of optocouplers chopped by a stationary wheel
An array of optocouplers whose light transmission path is controlled by a
rotating wheel
An array of optocouplers whose propagation velocity is controlled by a
stationary wheel
An array of optocouplers whose propagation velocity is controlled by a
rotating wheel
4BE-1.8

What does the photoconductive effect in crystalline solids produce a
noticeable change in?

The capacitance of the solid
The inductance of the solid
The specific gravity of the solid
The resistance of the solid
4BE-2A.1

What is the meaning of the term time constant of an RC circuit?

The time required to charge the capacitor in the circuit to 36.8% of the

supply voltage
The time required to charge the capacitor in the circuit to 36.8% of the
supply current
The time required to charge the capacitor in the circuit to 63.2% of the
supply current
The time required to charge the capacitor in the circuit to 63.2% of the
supply voltage
4BE-2A.2

What is the meaning of the term time constant of an RL circuit?

The time required for the current in the circuit to build up to 36.8% of

the maximum value
The time required for the voltage in the circuit to build up to 63.2% of
the maximum value
The time required for the current in the circuit to build up to 63.2% of
the maximum value
The time required for the voltage in the circuit to build up to 36.8% of
the maximum value
4BE-2A.3

What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to
be charged to 63.2% of the supply voltage?

An exponential rate of one
One time constant
One exponential period
A time factor of one
4BE-2A.4


What is the term for the time required for the current in an RL circuit to
build up to 63.2% of the maximum value?

One time constant
An exponential period of one
A time factor of one
One exponential rate
4BE-2A.5

What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC
circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial value of stored charge?

One discharge period
An exponential discharge rate of one
A discharge factor of one
One time constant
4BE-2A.6

What is meant by back EMF?

A current equal to the applied EMF
An opposing EMF equal to R times C (RC) percent of the applied EMF
A current that opposes the applied EMF
A voltage that opposes the applied EMF
4BE-2B.1

After two time constants, the capacitor in an RC circuit is charged to what
percentage of the supply voltage?

36.8%
63.2%
86.5%
95%
4BE-2B.2

After two time constants, the capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what
percentage of the starting voltage?

86.5%
63.2%
36.8%
13.5%
4BE-2B.3

What is the time constant of a circuit having a 100-microfarad capacitor in
series with a 470-kilohm resistor?

4700 seconds
470 seconds
47 seconds
0.47 seconds
4BE-2B.4


What is the time constant of a circuit having a 220-microfarad capacitor in
parallel with a 1-megohm resistor?

220 seconds
22 seconds
2.2 seconds
0.22 seconds
4BE-2B.5

What is the time constant of a circuit having two 100-microfarad capacitors
and two 470-kilohm resistors all in series?

470 seconds
47 seconds
4.7 seconds
0.47 seconds
4BE-2B.6

What is the time constant of a circuit having two 100-microfarad capacitors
and two 470-kilohm resistors all in parallel?

470 seconds
47 seconds
4.7 seconds
0.47 seconds
4BE-2B.7

What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors
and two 1-megohm resistors all in series?

55 seconds
110 seconds
220 seconds
440 seconds
4BE-2B.8

What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors
and two 1-megohm resistors all in parallel?

22 seconds
44 seconds
220 seconds
440 seconds
4BE-2B.9

What is the time constant of a circuit having one 100-microfarad capacitor,
one 220-microfarad capacitor, one 470- kilohm resistor and one 1-megohm
resistor all in series?

68.8 seconds
101.1 seconds
220.0 seconds
470.0 seconds
4BE-2B.10

What is the time constant of a circuit having a 470-microfarad capacitor and a
1-megohm resistor in parallel?

0.47 seconds
47 seconds
220 seconds
470 seconds
4BE-2B.11


What is the time constant of a circuit having a 470-microfarad capacitor in
series with a 470-kilohm resistor?

221 seconds
221000 seconds
470 seconds
470000 seconds
4BE-2B.12


What is the time constant of a circuit having a 220-microfarad capacitor in
series with a 470-kilohm resistor?

103 seconds
220 seconds
470 seconds
470000 seconds
4BE-2B.13

How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 7.36 V
DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across
it?

12.64 seconds
0.02 seconds
1 second
7.98 seconds
4BE-2B.14


How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 2.71 V
DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across
it?

0.04 seconds
0.02 seconds
7.36 seconds
12.64 seconds
4BE-2B.15

How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 1 V DC
in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it?

0.01 seconds
0.02 seconds
0.04 seconds
0.06 seconds
4BE-2B.16


How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 0.37 V
DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across
it?

0.08 seconds
0.6 seconds
0.4 seconds
0.2 seconds
4BE-2B.17

How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 0.13 V
DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across
it?

0.06 seconds
0.08 seconds
0.1 seconds
1.2 seconds
4BE-2B.18

How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 294 V
DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across
it?

80 seconds
294 seconds
368 seconds
450 seconds
4BE-2B.19

How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 108 V
DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across
it?

225 seconds
294 seconds
450 seconds
900 seconds
4BE-2B.20


How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 39.9 V
DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across
it?

1350 seconds
900 seconds
450 seconds
225 seconds
4BE-2B.21

How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 40.2 V
DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across
it?

Approximately 225 seconds
Approximately 450 seconds
Approximately 900 seconds
Approximately 1350 seconds
4BE-2B.22

How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 14.8 V
DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across
it?

Approximately 900 seconds
Approximately 1350 seconds
Approximately 1804 seconds
Approximately 2000 seconds
4BE-3.1


What is a Smith Chart?

A graph for calculating impedance along transmission lines
A graph for calculating great circle bearings
A graph for calculating antenna height
A graph for calculating radiation patterns
4BE-3.2

What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith Chart?

Voltage and current circles
Resistance and reactance circles
Voltage and current lines
Resistance and reactance lines
4BE-3.3

What type of calculations can be performed using a Smith Chart?

Beam headings and radiation patterns
Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
Circuit gain calculations
4BE-3.4

What are the two families of circles that make up a Smith Chart?

Resistance and voltage
Reactance and voltage
Resistance and reactance
Voltage and impedance
4BE-3.5

What is the only straight line on a blank Smith Chart?

The reactance axis
The resistance axis
The voltage axis
The current axis
4BE-3.6

What is the process of normalizing with regard to a Smith Chart?

Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis
Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis
Reassigning resistance values with regard to the prime center
Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis
4BE-3.7

What are the curved lines on a Smith Chart?

Portions of current circles
Portions of voltage circles
Portions of resistance circles
Portions of reactance circles
4BE-3.8

What is the third family of circles which are added to a Smith Chart during
the process of solving problems?

Coaxial length circles
Antenna length circles
Standing wave ratio circles
Radiation pattern circles
4BE-3.9

How are the wavelength scales on a Smith Chart calibrated?

In portions of transmission line electrical frequency
In portions of transmission line electrical wavelength
In portions of antenna electrical wavelength
In portions of antenna electrical frequency
4BE-4.1


What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 0.1-microhenry inductor in
series with a 20-ohm resistor, at 30 MHz?  (Specify your answer in rectangular
coordinates.)

20 + j19
20 - j19
19 + j20
19 - j20
4BE-4.2

What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 0.1-microhenry inductor in
series with a 30-ohm resistor, at 5 MHz?  (Specify your answer in rectangular
coordinates.)

30 - j3
30 + j3
3 + j30
3 - j30
4BE-4.3


What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 10-microhenry inductor in
series with a 40-ohm resistor, at 500 MHz?  (Specify your answer in
rectangular coordinates.)

40 + j31400
40 - j31400
31400 + j40
31400 - j40
4BE-4.4

What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-picofarad capacitor in
parallel with a 4000-ohm resistor, at 500 kHz?  (Specify your answer in polar
coordinates.)

2490 ohms,  / 51.5 degrees
4000 ohms,  / 38.5 degrees
5112 ohms,  / -38.5 degrees
2490 ohms,  / -51.5 degrees
4BE-4.5


What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 0.001-microfarad capacitor
in series with a 400-ohm resistor, at 500 kHz?  (Specify your answer in
rectangular coordinates.)

400 - j318
318 - j400
400 + j318
318 + j400
4BE-5.1

What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm- reactance inductor
in series with a 100-ohm resistor?  (Specify your answer in polar coordinates.)

121 ohms,  / 35 degrees
141 ohms,  / 45 degrees
161 ohms,  / 55 degrees
181 ohms,  / 65 degrees
4BE-5.2

What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm- reactance inductor,
a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor, and a 100-ohm resistor all connected in series?
(Specify your answer in polar coordinates.)

100 ohms,  / 90 degrees
 10 ohms,  / 0 degrees
100 ohms,  / 0 degrees
 10 ohms,  / 100 degrees
4BE-5.3

What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 400-ohm- reactance capacitor
in series with a 300-ohm resistor? (Specify your answer in polar coordinates.)

240 ohms,  / 36.9 degrees
240 ohms,  / -36.9 degrees
500 ohms,  / 53.1 degrees
500 ohms,  / -53.1 degrees
4BE-5.4


What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm- reactance
capacitor, a 600-ohm-reactance inductor, and a 400- ohm resistor, all
connected in series? (Specify your answer in polar coordinates.)

500 ohms,  / 37 degrees
400 ohms,  / 27 degrees
300 ohms,  / 17 degrees
200 ohms,  / 10 degrees
4BE-5.5


What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 400-ohm- reactance inductor
in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor? (Specify your answer in polar
coordinates.)

240 ohms,  / 36.9 degrees
240 ohms,  / -36.9 degrees
500 ohms,  / 53.1 degrees
500 ohms,  / -53.1 degrees
4BE-6A.1

What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 1.0-millihenry inductor in
series with a 200-ohm resistor, at 30 kHz?  (Specify your answer in
rectangular coordinates.)

200 - j188
200 + j188
188 + j200
188 - j200
4BE-6A.2

What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 10-millihenry inductor in
series with a 600-ohm resistor, at 10 kHz?  (Specify your answer in
rectangular coordinates.)

628 + j600
628 - j600
600 + j628
600 - j628
4BE-6A.3

What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 0.01-microfarad capacitor in
parallel with a 300-ohm resistor, at 50 kHz?  (Specify your answer in
rectangular coordinates.)

150 - j159
150 + j159
159 + j150
159 - j150
4BE-6A.4

What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 0.1-microfarad capacitor in
series with a 40-ohm resistor, at 50 kHz?  (Specify your answer in rectangular
coordinates.)

40 + j32
40 - j32
32 - j40
32 + j40
4BE-6A.5

What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 1.0-microfarad capacitor in
parallel with a 30-ohm resistor, at 5 MHz?  (Specify your answer in
rectangular coordinates.)

0.000034 + j.032
0.032 + j.000034
0.000034 - j.032
0.032 - j.000034
4BE-6B.1

What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm- reactance capacitor
in series with a 100-ohm resistor? (Specify your answer in polar coordinates.)

121 ohms,  / -25 degrees
141 ohms,  / -45 degrees
161 ohms,  / -65 degrees
191 ohms,  / -85 degrees
4BE-6B.2

What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm- reactance capacitor
in parallel with a 100-ohm resistor? (Specify your answer in polar
coordinates.)

31 ohms,  / -15 degrees
51 ohms,  / -25 degrees
71 ohms,  / -45 degrees
91 ohms,  / -65 degrees
4BE-6B.3

What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm- reactance inductor
in series with a 400-ohm resistor?  (Specify your answer in polar coordinates.)

400 ohms,  / 27 degrees
500 ohms,  / 37 degrees
600 ohms,  / 47 degrees
700 ohms,  / 57 degrees
4BE-6B.4


What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm- reactance inductor
in parallel with a 100-ohm resistor? (Specify your answer in polar
coordinates.)

 71 ohms,  / 45 degrees
 81 ohms,  / 55 degrees
 91 ohms,  / 65 degrees
100 ohms,  / 75 degrees
4BE-6B.5

What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm- reactance capacitor
in series with a 400-ohm resistor? (Specify your answer in polar coordinates.)

200 ohms,  / -10 degrees
300 ohms,  / -17 degrees
400 ohms,  / -27 degrees
500 ohms,  / -37 degrees
'SUBELEMENT 4BF -- Circuit Components (4 questions)
4
4BF-1A.1

What is an enhancement-mode FET?

An FET with a channel that blocks voltage through the gate
An FET with a channel that allows a current when the gate voltage is zero
An FET without a channel to hinder current through the gate
An FET without a channel; no current occurs with zero gate voltage
4BF-1B.1


What is a depletion-mode FET?

An FET that has a channel with no gate voltage applied; a current flows

with zero gate voltage
An FET that has a channel that blocks current when the gate voltage is zero
An FET without a channel; no current flows with zero gate voltage
An FET without a channel to hinder current through the gate
4BF-1C.1


What is the schematic symbol for an N-channel MOSFET? (See question 4BF-1C.1)

Selection A The gate-protective Zener diode provides a voltage reference to

provide the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage
Selection B The gate-protective Zener diode protects the substrate from
excessive voltages
Selection C The gate-protective Zener diode keeps the gate voltage within
specifications to prevent the device from overheating
Selection D The gate-protective Zener diode prevents the gate insulation
from being punctured by small static charges or excessive voltages
4BF-1D.1

What do the initials CMOS stand for?

Common mode oscillating system
Complementary mica-oxide silicon
Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor
Complementary metal-oxide substrate
4BF-1D.2


Why are special precautions necessary in handling FET and CMOS devices?

They are susceptible to damage from static charges
They have fragile leads that may break off
They have micro-welded semiconductor junctions that are susceptible to
breakage
They are light sensitive
4BF-1E.1


What is the schematic symbol for an N-channel junction FET? (See question
4BF-1E.1)

Selection A
Selection B
Selection C
Selection D
4BF-1E.2

How does the input impedance of a field-effect transistor compare with that of
a bipolar transistor?

One cannot compare input impedance without first knowing the supply voltage
An FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor has high input
impedance
The input impedance of FETs and bipolar transistors is the same
An FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor has low input
impedance
4BF-1E.3

What are the three terminals of a field-effect transistor?

Gate 1, gate 2, drain
Emitter, base, collector
Emitter, base 1, base 2
Gate, drain, source
4BF-1F.1

What is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET? (See question
4BF-1F.1)

Selection A
Selection B
Selection C
Selection D
4BF-1F.2


What are the two basic types of junction field-effect transistors?

N-channel and P-channel
High power and low power
MOSFET and GaAsFET
Silicon FET and germanium FET
4BF-2.1


What is an operational amplifier?

A high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier whose characteristics

are determined by components external to the amplifier unit
A high-gain, direct-coupled audio amplifier whose characteristics are
determined by components external to the amplifier unit
An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency modulated
amateur signals to the legal limit
A program subroutine that calculates the gain of an RF amplifier
4BF-2.2


What is the schematic symbol for an operational amplifier? (See question
4BF-2.2)

Selection A
Selection B
Selection C
Selection D
4BF-2.3

What would be the characteristics of the ideal op-amp?

Zero input impedance, infinite output impedance, infinite gain, flat

frequency response
Infinite input impedance, zero output impedance, infinite gain, flat
frequency response
Zero input impedance, zero output impedance, infinite gain, flat frequency
response
Infinite input impedance, infinite output impedance, infinite gain, flat
frequency response
4BF-2.4


What determines the gain of a closed-loop op-amp circuit?

The external feedback network
The collector-to-base capacitance of the PNP stage
The power supply voltage
The PNP collector load
4BF-2.5

What is meant by the term op-amp offset voltage?

The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage
The difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the input
voltage required in the following stage
The potential between the amplifier-input terminals of the op-amp in a
closed-loop condition
The potential between the amplifier-input terminals of the op-amp in an
open-loop condition
4BF-2.6

What is the input impedance of a theoretically ideal op-amp?

100 ohms
1000 ohms
Very low
Very high
4BF-2.7


What is the output impedance of a theoretically ideal op-amp?

Very low
Very high
100 ohms
1000 ohms
4BF-3.1

What is a phase-locked loop circuit?

An electronic servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactance

modulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator
An electronic circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator
An electronic circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifier with a
differential input
An electronic servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pass filter
and voltage-controlled oscillator
4BF-3.2

What functions are performed by a phase-locked loop?

Wideband AF and RF power amplification
Comparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse counter
Photovolatic conversion, optical coupling
Frequency synthesis, FM demodulation
4BF-3.3

A circuit compares the output from a voltage-controlled oscillator and a
frequency standard.  The difference between the two frequencies produces an
error voltage that changes the voltage-controlled oscillator frequency.  What
is the name of the circuit?

A doubly balanced mixer
A phase-locked loop
A differential voltage amplifier
A variable frequency oscillator
4BF-4.1

What do the initials TTL stand for?

Resistor-transistor logic
Transistor-transistor logic
Diode-transistor logic
Emitter-coupled logic
4BF-4.2

What is the recommended power supply voltage for TTL series integrated
circuits?

12.00 volts
50.00 volts
5.00 volts
13.60 volts
4BF-4.3


What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left open?

A high logic state
A low logic state
The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high or low
logic states
Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored
4BF-4.4


What level of input voltage is high in a TTL device operating with a 5-volt
power supply?

2.0 to 5.5 volts
1.5 to 3.0 volts
1.0 to 1.5 volts
-5.0 to -2.0 volts
4BF-4.5

What level of input voltage is low in a TTL device operating with a 5-volt
power supply?

-2.0 to -5.5 volts
2.0 to 5.5 volts
-0.6 to 0.8 volts
-0.8 to 0.4 volts
4BF-4.6

Why do circuits containing TTL devices have several bypass capacitors per
printed circuit board?

To prevent RFI to receivers
To keep the switching noise within the circuit, thus eliminating RFI
To filter out switching harmonics
To prevent switching transients from appearing on the supply line
4BF-5.1

What is a CMOS IC?

A chip with only P-channel transistors
A chip with P-channel and N-channel transistors
A chip with only N-channel transistors
A chip with only bipolar transistors
4BF-5.2

What is one major advantage of CMOS over other devices?

Small size
Low current consumption
Low cost
Ease of circuit design
4BF-5.3

Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the
input signal or power supply?

Larger bypass capacitors are used in CMOS circuit design
The input switching threshold is about two times the power supply voltage
The input switching threshold is about one-half the power supply voltage
Input signals are stronger
4BF-6.1

What is the name for a vacuum tube that is commonly found in television
cameras used for amateur television?

A traveling-wave tube
A klystron tube
A vidicon tube
A cathode-ray tube
4BF-6.2

How is the electron beam deflected in a vidicon?

By varying the beam voltage
By varying the bias voltage on the beam forming grids inside the tube
By varying the beam current
By varying electromagnetic fields
4BF-6.3

What type of CRT deflection is better when high-frequency waves are to be
displayed on the screen?

Electromagnetic
Tubular
Radar
Electrostatic
'SUBELEMENT 4BG -- Practical Circuits (4 questions)
4
4BG-1A.1

What is a flip-flop circuit?

A binary sequential logic element with one stable state
A binary sequential logic element with eight stable states
A binary sequential logic element with four stable states
A binary sequential logic element with two stable states
4BG-1A.2


How many bits of information can be stored in a single flip-flop circuit?

1
2
3
4
4BG-1A.3

What is a bistable multivibrator circuit?

An "AND" gate
An "OR" gate
A flip-flop
A clock
4BG-1A.4

How many output changes are obtained for every two trigger pulses applied to
the input of a bistable T flip-flop circuit?

No output level changes
One output level change
Two output level changes
Four output level changes
4BG-1A.5

The frequency of an AC signal can be divided electronically by what type of
digital circuit?

A free-running multivibrator
An OR gate
A bistable multivibrator
An astable multivibrator
4BG-1A.6

What type of digital IC is also known as a latch?

A decade counter
An OR gate
A flip-flop
An op-amp
4BG-1A.7

How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4?

1
2
4
8
4BG-1B.1

What is an astable multivibrator?

A circuit that alternates between two stable states
A circuit that alternates between a stable state and an unstable state
A circuit set to block either a 0 pulse or a 1 pulse and pass the other
A circuit that alternates between two unstable states
4BG-1B.2


What is a monostable multivibrator?

A circuit that can be switched momentarily to the opposite binary state and

then returns after a set time to its original state
A "clock" circuit that produces a continuous square wave oscillating
between 1 and 0
A circuit designed to store one bit of data in either the 0 or the 1
configuration
A circuit that maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of
variations in the input voltage
4BG-1C.1


What is an AND gate?

A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are

logic "1"
A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are
logic "1"
A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output if only one input is a
logic "1"
A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic
"0"
4BG-1C.2


What is the schematic symbol for an AND gate? (See question 4BG-1C.2)

Selection A
Selection B
Selection C
Selection D
4BG-1C.3

What is a NAND gate?

A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are

logic "0"
A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are
logic "1"
A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output if some but not all of
its inputs are logic "1"
A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are
logic "1"
4BG-1C.4

What is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate? (See question 4BG-1C.4)

Selection A
Selection B
Selection C
Selection D
4BG-1C.5


What is an OR gate?

A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output if any input is logic "1"
A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output if any input is logic "1"
A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic
"1"
A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic
"0"
4BG-1C.6

What is the schematic symbol for an OR gate? (See question 4BG-1C.6)

Selection A
Selection B
Selection C
Selection D
4BG-1C.7

What is a NOR gate?

A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are

logic "0"
A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are
logic "1"
A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output if any or all inputs are
logic "1"
A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output if some but not all of
its inputs are logic "1"
4BG-1C.8

What is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate? (See question 4BG-1C.8)

Selection A
Selection B
Selection C
Selection D
4BG-1C.9


What is a NOT gate?

A circuit that produces a logic "O" at its output when the input is logic

"1" and vice versa
A circuit that does not allow data transmission when its input is high
A circuit that allows data transmission only when its input is high
A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output when the input is logic
"1" and vice versa
4BG-1C.10


What is the schematic symbol for a NOT gate? (See question 4BG-1C.10)

Selection A
Selection B
Selection C
Selection D
4BG-1D.1

What is a truth table?

A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp
A diagram showing logic states when the digital device's output is true
A list of input combinations and their corresponding outputs that
characterizes a digital device's function
A table of logic symbols that indicates the low logic states of an op-amp
4BG-1D.2

In a positive-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 1?

A low level
A positive-transition level
A negative-transition level
A high level
4BG-1D.3


In a positive-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 0?

A low level
A positive-transition level
A negative-transition level
A high level
4BG-1D.4


In a negative-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 1?

A low level
A positive-transition level
A negative-transition level
A high level
4BG-1D.5

In a negative-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 0?

A low level
A positive-transition level
A negative-transition level
A high level
4BG-2A.1

What is a crystal-controlled marker generator?

A low-stability oscillator that "sweeps" through a band of frequencies
An oscillator often used in aircraft to determine the craft's location
relative to the inner and outer markers at airports
A high-stability oscillator whose output frequency and amplitude can be
varied over a wide range
A high-stability oscillator that generates a series of reference signals at
known frequency intervals
4BG-2A.2

What additional circuitry is required in a 100-kHz crystal-controlled marker
generator to provide markers at 50 and 25 kHz?

An emitter-follower
Two frequency multipliers
Two flip-flops
A voltage divider
4BG-2B.1

What is the purpose of a prescaler circuit?

It converts the output of a JK flip-flop to that of an RS flip-flop
It multiplies an HF signal so a low-frequency counter can display the
operating frequency
It prevents oscillation in a low frequency counter circuit
It divides an HF signal so a low-frequency counter can display the
operating frequency
4BG-2B.2


What does the accuracy of a frequency counter depend on?

The internal crystal reference
A voltage-regulated power supply with an unvarying output
Accuracy of the AC input frequency to the power supply
Proper balancing of the power-supply diodes
4BG-2B.3

How many states does a decade counter digital IC have?

6
10
15
20
4BG-2B.4

What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?

Decode a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display
Produce one output pulse for every ten input pulses
Produce ten output pulses for every input pulse
Add two decimal numbers
4BG-3A.1

What are the advantages of using an op-amp instead of LC elements in an audio
filter?

Op-amps are more rugged and can withstand more abuse than can LC elements
Op-amps are fixed at one frequency
Op-amps are available in more styles and types than are LC elements
Op-amps exhibit gain rather than insertion loss
4BG-3A.2

What determines the gain and frequency characteristics of an op-amp RC active
filter?

Values of capacitances and resistances built into the op-amp
Values of capacitances and resistances external to the op-amp
Voltage and frequency of DC input to the op-amp power supply
Regulated DC voltage output from the op-amp power supply
4BG-3A.3

What are the principle uses of an op-amp RC active filter in amateur circuitry?

Op-amp circuits are used as high-pass filters to block RFI at the input to

receivers
Op-amp circuits are used as low-pass filters between transmitters and
transmission lines
Op-amp circuits are used as filters for smoothing power-supply output
Op-amp circuits are used as audio filters for receivers
4BG-3B.1

What type of capacitors should be used in an op-amp RC active filter circuit?

Electrolytic
Disc ceramic
Polystyrene
Paper dielectric
4BG-3B.2


How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in a multisection
op-amp RC audio filter circuit?

Restrict both gain and Q
Restrict gain, but increase Q
Restrict Q, but increase gain
Increase both gain and Q
4BG-3B.3

Where should an op-amp RC active audio filter be placed in an amateur receiver?

In the IF strip, immediately before the detector
In the audio circuitry immediately before the speaker or phone jack
Between the balanced modulator and frequency multiplier
In the low-level audio stages
4BG-3B.4


What parameter must be selected when designing an audio filter using an op-amp?

Bandpass characteristics
Desired current gain
Temperature coefficient
Output-offset overshoot
4BG-4A.1

What two factors determine the sensitivity of a receiver?

Dynamic range and third-order intercept
Cost and availability
Intermodulation distortion and dynamic range
Bandwidth and noise figure
4BG-4A.2


What is the limiting condition for sensitivity in a communications receiver?

The noise floor of the receiver
The power-supply output ripple
The two-tone intermodulation distortion
The input impedance to the detector
4BG-4A.3

What is the theoretical minimum noise floor of a receiver with a 400-Hertz
bandwidth?

-141 dBm
-148 dBm
-174 dBm
-180 dBm
4BG-4B.1

How can selectivity be achieved in the front-end circuitry of a communications
receiver?

By using an audio filter
By using a preselector
By using an additional RF amplifier stage
By using an additional IF amplifier stage
4BG-4B.2

A receiver selectivity of 2.4 kHz in the IF circuitry is optimum for what type
of amateur signals?

CW
SSB voice
Double-sideband AM voice
FSK RTTY
4BG-4B.3

What occurs during A1A reception if too narrow a filter bandwidth is used in
the IF stage of a receiver?

Undesired signals will reach the audio stage
Output-offset overshoot
Cross-modulation distortion
Filter ringing
4BG-4B.4

What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF circuitry of an amateur
emission F1B receiver?

100 Hz
300 Hz
6000 Hz
2400 Hz
4BG-4B.5

A receiver selectivity of 10 kHz in the IF circuitry is optimum for what type
of amateur signals?

SSB voice
Double-sideband AM
CW
FSK RTTY
4BG-4B.6

What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF circuitry of an emission J3E
receiver?

1 kHz
2.4 kHz
4.2 kHz
4.8 kHz
4BG-4B.7

What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in the IF
section of a receiver?

Output-offset overshoot
Undesired signals will reach the audio stage
Thermal-noise distortion
Filter ringing
4BG-4B.8


How should the filter bandwidth of a receiver IF section compare with the
bandwidth of a received signal?

Filter bandwidth should be slightly greater than the received-signal

bandwidth
Filter bandwidth should be approximately half the received- signal bandwidth
Filter bandwidth should be approximately two times the received-signal
bandwidth
Filter bandwidth should be approximately four times the received-signal
bandwidth
4BG-4B.9

What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF circuitry of an emission F3E
receiver?

1 kHz
2.4 kHz
4.2 kHz
15 kHz
4BG-4B.10

How can selectivity be achieved in the IF circuitry of a communications
receiver?

Incorporate a means of varying the supply voltage to the local oscillator

circuitry
Replace the standard JFET mixer with a bipolar transistor followed by a
capacitor of the proper value
Remove AGC action from the IF stage and confine it to the audio stage only
Incorporate a high-Q filter
4BG-4C.1

What is meant by the dynamic range of a communications receiver?

The number of kHz between the lowest and the highest frequency to which the

receiver can be tuned
The maximum possible undistorted audio output of the receiver, referenced
to one milliwatt
The ratio between the minimum discernible signal and the largest tolerable
signal without causing audible distortion products
The difference between the lowest-frequency signal and the
highest-frequency signal detectable without moving the tuning knob
4BG-4C.2

What is the term for the ratio between the largest tolerable receiver input
signal and the minimum discernible signal?

Intermodulation distortion
Noise floor
Noise figure
Dynamic range
4BG-4C.3


What type of problems are caused by poor dynamic range in a communications
receiver?

Cross-modulation of the desired signal and desensitization from strong

adjacent signals
Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning, and loss of ability to
recover the opposite sideband, should it be transmitted
Cross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to
operate the speaker
Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest
received signals
4BG-4C.4

The ability of a communications receiver to perform well in the presence of
strong signals outside the amateur band of interest is indicated by what
parameter?

Noise figure
Blocking dynamic range
Signal-to-noise ratio
Audio output
4BG-4D.1

What is meant by the term noise figure of a communications receiver?

The level of noise entering the receiver from the antenna
The relative strength of a received signal 3 kHz removed from the carrier
frequency
The level of noise generated in the front end and succeeding stages of a
receiver
The ability of a receiver to reject unwanted signals at frequencies close
to the desired one
4BG-4D.2

Which stage of a receiver primarily establishes its noise figure?

The audio stage
The IF strip
The RF stage
The local oscillator
4BG-5A.1


What is an inverting op-amp circuit?

An operational amplifier circuit connected such that the input and output

signals are 180 degrees out of phase
An operational amplifier circuit connected such that the input and output
signals are in phase
An operational amplifier circuit connected such that the input and output
signals are 90 degrees out of phase
An operational amplifier circuit connected such that the input impedance is
held at zero, while the output impedance is high
4BG-5B.1

What is a noninverting op-amp circuit?

An operational amplifier circuit connected such that the input and output

signals are 180 degrees out of phase
An operational amplifier circuit connected such that the input and output
signals are in phase
An operational amplifier circuit connected such that the input and output
signals are 90 degrees out of phase
An operational amplifier circuit connected such that the input impedance is
held at zero while the output impedance is high
4BG-5C.1

What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure 4BG-5 when R1 is
1000 ohms and Rf is 100 kilohms?

0.1
1
10
100
4BG-5C.2

What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure 4BG-5 when R1 is
1800 ohms and Rf is 68 kilohms?

1
0.03
38
76
4BG-5C.3

What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure 4BG-5 when R1 is
3300 ohms and Rf is 47 kilohms?

28
14
7
0.07
4BG-5C.4

What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure 4BG-5 when R1 is
10 ohms and Rf is 47 kilohms?

0.00021
9400
4700
2350
4BG-5D.1

How does the gain of a theoretically ideal operational amplifier vary with
frequency?

The gain increases linearly with increasing frequency
The gain decreases linearly with increasing frequency
The gain decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency
The gain does not vary with frequency
4BG-6.1

What determines the input impedance in a FET common-source amplifier?

The input impedance is essentially determined by the resistance between the

drain and substrate
The input impedance is essentially determined by the resistance between the
source and drain
The input impedance is essentially determined by the gate biasing network
The input impedance is essentially determined by the resistance between the
source and substrate
4BG-6.2


What determines the output impedance in a FET common-source amplifier?

The output impedance is essentially determined by the drain resistor
The output impedance is essentially determined by the input impedance of
the FET
The output impedance is essentially determined by the drain-supply voltage
The output impedance is essentially determined by the gate supply voltage
4BG-7.1


What frequency range will be tuned by the circuit in Figure 4BG-7 when L is 10
microhenrys, Cf is 156 picofarads, and Cv is 50 picofarads maximum and 2
picofarads minimum?

3508 through 4004 kHz
6998 through 7360 kHz
13.396 through 14.402 MHz
49.998 through 54.101 MHz
4BG-7.2


What frequency range will be tuned by the circuit in Figure 4BG-7 when L is 30
microhenrys, Cf is 200 picofarads, and Cv is 80 picofarads maximum and 10
picofarads minimum?

1737 through 2005 kHz
3507 through 4004 kHz
7002 through 7354 kHz
14.990 through 15.020 MHz
4BG-8.1

What is the purpose of a bypass capacitor?

It increases the resonant frequency of the circuit
It removes direct current from the circuit by shunting DC to ground
It removes alternating current by providing a low impedance path to ground
It acts as a voltage divider
4BG-8.2


What is the purpose of a coupling capacitor?

It blocks direct current and passes alternating current
It blocks alternating current and passes direct current
It increases the resonant frequency of the circuit
It decreases the resonant frequency of the circuit
'SUBELEMENT 4BH -- Signals and Emissions (4 questions)
4
4BH-1A.1


In a pulse-width modulation system, what parameter does the modulating signal
vary?

Pulse duration
Pulse frequency
Pulse amplitude
Pulse intensity
4BH-1A.2

What is the type of modulation in which the modulating signal varies the
duration of the transmitted pulse?

Amplitude modulation
Frequency modulation
Pulse-width modulation
Pulse-height modulation
4BH-1B.1

In a pulse-position modulation system, what parameter does the modulating
signal vary?

The number of pulses per second
Both the frequency and amplitude of the pulses
The duration of the pulses
The time at which each pulse occurs
4BH-1B.2


Why is the transmitter peak power in a pulse modulation system much greater
than its average power?

The signal duty cycle is less than 100%
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice-modulated
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes are generated
within the modulator
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are also
amplitude-modulated
4BH-1B.3

What is one way that voice is transmitted in a pulse-width modulation system?

A standard pulse is varied in amplitude by an amount depending on the voice

waveform at that instant
The position of a standard pulse is varied by an amount depending on the
voice waveform at that instant
A standard pulse is varied in duration by an amount depending on the voice
waveform at that instant
The number of standard pulses per second varies depending on the voice
waveform at that instant
4BH-2A.1

What digital code consists of elements having unequal length?

ASCII
AX.25
Baudot
Morse code
4BH-2B.1

What digital communications system is well suited for meteor-scatter
communications?

ACSSB
AMTOR
Packet radio
Spread spectrum
4BH-2B.2


The International Organization for Standardization has developed a seven-level
reference model for a packet-radio communications structure.  What level is
responsible for the actual transmission of data and handshaking signals?

The physical layer
The transport layer
The communications layer
The synchronization layer
4BH-2B.3

The International Organization for Standardization has developed a seven-level
reference model for a packet-radio communications structure.  What level
arranges the bits into frames and controls data flow?

The transport layer
The link layer
The communications layer
The synchronization layer
4BH-2C.1

What is one advantage of using the ASCII code, with its larger character set,
instead of the Baudot code?

ASCII includes built-in error-correction features
ASCII characters contain fewer information bits than Baudot characters
It is possible to transmit upper and lower case text
The larger character set allows store-and-forward control characters to be
added to a message
4BH-2D.1

What type of error control system does Mode A AMTOR use?

Each character is sent twice
The receiving station checks the calculated frame check sequence (FCS)
against the transmitted FCS
Mode A AMTOR does not include an error control system
The receiving station automatically requests repeats when needed
4BH-2D.2


What type of error control system does Mode B AMTOR use?

Each character is sent twice
The receiving station checks the calculated frame check sequence (FCS)
against the transmitted FCS
Mode B AMTOR does not include an error control system
The receiving station automatically requests repeats when needed
4BH-2E.1

What is the duration of a 45-baud Baudot RTTY data pulse?

11 milliseconds
40 milliseconds
31 milliseconds
22 milliseconds
4BH-2E.2

What is the duration of a 45-baud Baudot RTTY start pulse?

11 milliseconds
22 milliseconds
31 milliseconds
40 milliseconds
4BH-2E.3

What is the duration of a 45-baud Baudot RTTY stop pulse?

11 milliseconds
18 milliseconds
31 milliseconds
40 milliseconds
4BH-2E.4

What is the primary advantage of AMTOR over Baudot RTTY?

AMTOR characters contain fewer information bits than Baudot characters
AMTOR includes an error detection system
Surplus radioteletype machines that use the AMTOR code are readily available
Photographs can be transmitted using AMTOR
4BH-2F.1

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-Hertz shift, 45-baud Baudot emission
F1B transmission?

45 Hz
250 Hz
442 Hz
600 Hz
4BH-2F.2

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-Hertz shift, 45-baud Baudot emission
J2B transmission?

45 Hz
249 Hz
442 Hz
600 Hz
4BH-2F.3

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-Hertz shift, 74-baud Baudot emission
F1B transmission?

250 Hz
278 Hz
442 Hz
600 Hz
4BH-2F.4

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-Hertz shift, 74-baud Baudot emission
J2B transmission?

250 Hz
278 Hz
442 Hz
600 Hz
4BH-2F.5

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international Morse code emission
A1A transmission?

Approximately 13 Hz
Approximately 26 Hz
Approximately 52 Hz
Approximately 104 Hz
4BH-2F.6

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international Morse code emission
J2A transmission?

Approximately 13 Hz
Approximately 26 Hz
Approximately 52 Hz
Approximately 104 Hz
4BH-2F.7

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 1000-Hertz shift, 1200-baud ASCII
emission F1D transmission?

1000 Hz
1200 Hz
440 Hz
2400 Hz
4BH-2F.8


What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hertz frequency shift, 9600-baud
ASCII emission F1D transmission?

15.36 kHz
9.6 kHz
4.8 kHz
5.76 kHz
4BH-2F.9


What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hertz frequency shift, 9600-baud
ASCII emission J2D transmission?

15.36 kHz
9.6 kHz
4.8 kHz
5.76 kHz
4BH-2F.10

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 5-WPM international Morse code emission
A1A transmission?

Approximately 5 Hz
Approximately 10 Hz
Approximately 20 Hz
Approximately 40 Hz
4BH-2F.11

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 5-WPM international Morse code emission
J2A transmission?

Approximately 5 Hz
Approximately 10 Hz
Approximately 20 Hz
Approximately 40 Hz
4BH-2F.12

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-Hertz shift, 110-baud ASCII emission
F1B transmission?

304 Hz
314 Hz
608 Hz
628 Hz
4BH-2F.13

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-Hertz shift, 110-baud ASCII emission
J2B transmission?

304 Hz
314 Hz
608 Hz
628 Hz
4BH-2F.14

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-Hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII emission
F1D transmission?

0 Hz
0.3 kHz
0.5 kHz
1.0 kHz
4BH-2F.15

What is the necessary bandwidth for a 170-Hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII emission
J2D transmission?

0 Hz
0.3 kHz
0.5 kHz
1.0 kHz
4BH-3.1

What is amplitude compandored single sideband?

Reception of single sideband with a conventional CW receiver
Reception of single sideband with a conventional FM receiver
Single sideband incorporating speech compression at the transmitter and
speech expansion at the receiver
Single sideband incorporating speech expansion at the transmitter and
speech compression at the receiver
4BH-3.2


What is meant by compandoring?

Compressing speech at the transmitter and expanding it at the receiver
Using an audio-frequency signal to produce pulse-length modulation
Combining amplitude and frequency modulation to produce a single-sideband
signal
Detecting and demodulating a single-sideband signal by converting it to a
pulse-modulated signal
4BH-3.3


What is the purpose of a pilot tone in an amplitude compandored single
sideband system?

It permits rapid tuning of a mobile receiver
It replaces the suppressed carrier at the receiver
It permits rapid change of frequency to escape high-powered interference
It acts as a beacon to indicate the present propagation characteristic of
the band
4BH-3.4

What is the approximate frequency of the pilot tone in an amplitude
compandored single sideband system?

1 kHz
5 MHz
455 kHz
3 kHz
4BH-3.5

How many more voice transmissions can be packed into a given frequency band
for amplitude compandored single sideband systems over conventional emission
F3E systems?

2
4
8
16
4BH-4.1

What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the RF
carrier varies according to some predetermined sequence?

Amplitude compandored single sideband
AMTOR
Time-domain frequency modulation
Spread spectrum communication
4BH-4.2


What is the term used to describe a spread spectrum communications system
where the center frequency of a conventional carrier is altered many times per
second in accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels?

Frequency hopping
Direct sequence
Time-domain frequency modulation
Frequency compandored spread spectrum
4BH-4.3

What term is used to describe a spread spectrum communications system in which
a very fast binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier?

Frequency hopping
Direct sequence
Binary phase-shift keying
Phase compandored spread spectrum
4BH-5.1

What is the term for the amplitude of the maximum positive excursion of a
signal as viewed on an oscilloscope?

Peak-to-peak voltage
Inverse peak negative voltage
RMS voltage
Peak positive voltage
4BH-5.2

What is the term for the amplitude of the maximum negative excursion of a
signal as viewed on an oscilloscope?

Peak-to-peak voltage
Inverse peak positive voltage
RMS voltage
Peak negative voltage
4BH-6A.1


What is the easiest voltage amplitude dimension to measure by viewing a pure
sine wave signal on an oscilloscope?

Peak-to-peak voltage
RMS voltage
Average voltage
DC voltage
4BH-6A.2

What is the relationship between the peak-to-peak voltage and the peak voltage
amplitude in a symmetrical wave form?

1:1
2:1
3:1
4:1
4BH-6A.3


What input-amplitude parameter is valuable in evaluating the signal-handling
capability of a Class A amplifier?

Peak voltage
Average voltage
RMS voltage
Resting voltage
'SUBELEMENT 4BI -- Antennas and Feed lines (4 questions)
4
4BI-1A.1


What is an isotropic radiator?

A hypothetical, omnidirectional antenna
In the northern hemisphere, an antenna whose directive pattern is constant
in southern directions
An antenna high enough in the air that its directive pattern is
substantially unaffected by the ground beneath it
An antenna whose directive pattern is substantially unaffected by the
spacing of the elements
4BI-1B.1


When is it useful to refer to an isotropic radiator?

When comparing the gains of directional antennas
When testing a transmission line for standing wave ratio
When (in the northern hemisphere) directing the transmission in a southerly
direction
When using a dummy load to tune a transmitter
4BI-1B.2

What theoretical reference antenna provides a comparison for antenna
measurements?

Quarter-wave vertical
Yagi
Bobtail curtain
Isotropic radiator
4BI-1B.3

What purpose does an isotropic radiator serve?

It is used to compare signal strengths (at a distant point) of different

transmitters
It is used as a reference for antenna gain measurements
It is used as a dummy load for tuning transmitters
It is used to measure the standing-wave-ratio on a transmission line
4BI-1B.4

How much gain does a 1/2-wavelength dipole have over an isotropic radiator?

About 1.5 dB
About 2.1 dB
About 3.0 dB
About 6.0 dB
4BI-1B.5


How much gain does an antenna have over a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 6
dB gain over an isotropic radiator?

About 3.9 dB
About 6.0 dB
About 8.1 dB
About 10.0 dB
4BI-1B.6

How much gain does an antenna have over a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 12
dB gain over an isotropic radiator?

About 6.1 dB
About 9.9 dB
About 12.0 dB
About 14.1 dB
4BI-1C.1

What is the antenna pattern for an isotropic radiator?

A figure-8
A unidirectional cardioid
A parabola
A sphere
4BI-1C.2

What type of directivity pattern does an isotropic radiator have?

A figure-8
A unidirectional cardioid
A parabola
A sphere
4BI-2A.1

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced
1/2 wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?

Unidirectional cardioid
Omnidirectional
Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas
4BI-2A.2


What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced
1/4 wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?

Unidirectional cardioid
Figure-8 end-fire
Figure-8 broadside
Omnidirectional
4BI-2A.3

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced
1/2 wavelength apart and fed in phase?

Omnidirectional
Cardioid unidirectional
Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas
4BI-2A.4

How far apart should two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas be spaced in order
to produce a figure-8 pattern that is broadside to the plane of the verticals
when fed in phase?

1/8 wavelength
1/4 wavelength
1/2 wavelength
1 wavelength
4BI-2A.5


How many 1/2 wavelengths apart should two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas be
spaced to produce a figure-8 pattern that is in line with the vertical
antennas when they are fed 180 degrees out of phase?

One half wavelength apart
Two half wavelengths apart
Three half wavelengths apart
Four half wavelengths apart
4BI-2A.6

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced
1/4 wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?

Omnidirectional
Cardioid unidirectional
Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas
4BI-2A.7

What is the radiation pattern for two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced
1/8 wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?

Omnidirectional
Cardioid unidirectional
Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas
4BI-2A.8


What is the radiation pattern for two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced
1/8 wavelength apart and fed in phase?

Omnidirectional
Cardioid unidirectional
Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas
4BI-2A.9

What is the radiation pattern for two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced
1/4 wavelength apart and fed in phase?

Substantially unidirectional
Elliptical
Cardioid unidirectional
Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas
4BI-3A.1

What is a resonant rhombic antenna?

A unidirectional antenna, each of whose sides is equal to half a wavelength

and which is terminated in a resistance equal to its characteristic

impedance
A bidirectional antenna open at the end opposite that to which the
transmission line is connected and with each side approximately equal to
one wavelength
An antenna with an LC network at each vertex (other than that to which the
transmission line is connected) tuned to resonate at the operating frequency
A high-frequency antenna, each of whose sides contains traps for changing
the resonance to match the band in use
4BI-3B.1


What is a nonresonant rhombic antenna?

A unidirectional antenna terminated in a resistance equal to its

characteristic impedance
An open-ended bidirectional antenna
An antenna resonant at approximately double the frequency of the intended
band of operation
A horizontal triangular antenna consisting of two adjacent sides and the
long diagonal of a resonant rhombic antenna
4BI-3B.2


What are the advantages of a nonresonant rhombic antenna?

Wide frequency range, high gain and high front-to-back ratio
High front-to-back ratio, compact size and high gain
Unidirectional radiation pattern, high gain and compact size
Bidirectional radiation pattern, high gain and wide frequency range
4BI-3B.3

What are the disadvantages of a nonresonant rhombic antenna?

It requires a large area for proper installation and has a narrow bandwidth
It requires a large area for proper installation and has a low
front-to-back ratio
It requires a large amount of aluminum tubing and has a low front-to-back
ratio
It requires a large area and four sturdy supports for proper installation
4BI-3B.4

What is the characteristic impedance at the input of a nonresonant rhombic
antenna?

50 to 55 ohms
70 to 75 ohms
300 to 350 ohms
700 to 800 ohms
4BI-3C.1

What is the effect of a terminating resistor on a rhombic antenna?

It reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to the

transmitter
It changes the radiation pattern from essentially bidirectional to
essentially unidirectional
It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical polarization
It decreases the ground loss
4BI-3C.2

What should be the value of the terminating resistor on a rhombic antenna?

About 50 ohms
About 75 ohms
About 800 ohms
About 1800 ohms
4BI-4A.1


What factors determine the receiving antenna gain required at an amateur
station in earth operation?

Height, transmitter power and antennas of satellite
Length of transmission line and impedance match between receiver and
transmission line
Preamplifier location on transmission line and presence or absence of RF
amplifier stages
Height of earth antenna and satellite orbit
4BI-4A.2


What factors determine the EIRP required by an amateur station in earth
operation?

Satellite antennas and height, satellite receiver sensitivity
Path loss, earth antenna gain, signal-to-noise ratio
Satellite transmitter power and orientation of ground receiving antenna
Elevation of satellite above horizon, signal-to-noise ratio, satellite
transmitter power
4BI-4A.3

What factors determine the EIRP required by an amateur station in telecommand
operation?

Path loss, earth antenna gain, signal-to-noise ratio
Satellite antennas and height, satellite receiver sensitivity
Satellite transmitter power and orientation of ground receiving antenna
Elevation of satellite above horizon, signal-to-noise ratio, satellite
transmitter power
4BI-4A.4

How does the gain of a parabolic dish type antenna change when the operating
frequency is doubled?

Gain does not change
Gain is multiplied by 0.707
Gain increases 6 dB
Gain increases 3 dB
4BI-4B.1

What happens to the beamwidth of an antenna as the gain is increased?

The beamwidth increases geometrically as the gain is increased
The beamwidth increases arithmetically as the gain is increased
The beamwidth is essentially unaffected by the gain of the antenna
The beamwidth decreases as the gain is increased
4BI-4B.2

What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna with a gain of 20 dB as
compared to an isotropic radiator?

10.1 degrees
20.3 degrees
45.0 degrees
60.9 degrees
4BI-4B.3

What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna with a gain of 30 dB as
compared to an isotropic radiator?

3.2 degrees
6.4 degrees
37 degrees
60.4 degrees
4BI-4B.4

What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna with a gain of 15 dB as
compared to an isotropic radiator?

72 degrees
52 degrees
36.1 degrees
3.61 degrees
4BI-4B.5

What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna with a gain of 12 dB as
compared to an isotropic radiator?

34.8 degrees
45.0 degrees
58.0 degrees
51.0 degrees
4BI-4C.1

How is circular polarization produced using linearly-polarized antennas?

Stack two Yagis, fed 90 degrees out of phase, to form an array with the

respective elements in parallel planes
Stack two Yagis, fed in phase, to form an array with the respective
elements in parallel planes
Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other, with the driven elements in
the same plane, and fed 90 degrees out of phase
Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other, with the driven elements in
the same plane, and fed in phase
4BI-4C.2

Why does an antenna system for earth operation (for communications through a
satellite) need to have rotators for both azimuth and elevation control?

In order to point the antenna above the horizon to avoid terrestrial

interference
Satellite antennas require two rotators because they are so large and heavy
In order to track the satellite as it orbits the earth
The elevation rotator points the antenna at the satellite and the azimuth
rotator changes the antenna polarization
4BI-5.1

What term describes a method used to match a high-impedance transmission line
to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in
two places, spaced a fraction of a wavelength on each side of the driven
element center?

The gamma matching system
The delta matching system
The omega matching system
The stub matching system
4BI-5.2


What term describes an unbalanced feed system in which the driven element is
fed both at the center of that element and a fraction of a wavelength to one
side of center?

The gamma matching system
The delta matching system
The omega matching system
The stub matching system
4BI-5.3

What term describes a method of antenna impedance matching that uses a short
section of transmission line connected to the antenna feed line near the
antenna and perpendicular to the feed line?

The gamma matching system
The delta matching system
The omega matching system
The stub matching system
4BI-5.4

What should be the approximate capacitance of the resonating capacitor in a
gamma matching circuit on a 1/2-wavelength dipole antenna for the 20-meter
band?

70 pF
140 pF
200 pF
0.2 pF
4BI-5.5


What should be the approximate capacitance of the resonating capacitor in a
gamma matching circuit on a 1/2-wavelength dipole antenna for the 10-meter
band?

70 pF
140 pF
200 pF
0.2 pF
4BI-6A.1

What kind of impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a
generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

A capacitive reactance
The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
An inductive reactance
The same as the input impedance to the final generator stage
4BI-6A.2

What kind of impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a
generator when the line is open at the far end?

The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
An inductive reactance
A capacitive reactance
The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage
4BI-6B.1


What kind of impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a
generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

A very high impedance
A very low impedance
The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
The same as the generator output impedance
4BI-6B.2

What kind of impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a
generator when the line is open at the far end?

A very high impedance
A very low impedance
The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
The same as the input impedance to the final generator stage
4BI-6C.1

What kind of impedance does a 3/8-wavelength transmission line present to a
generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
An inductive reactance
A capacitive reactance
The same as the input impedance to the final generator stage
4BI-6C.2

What kind of impedance does a 3/8-wavelength transmission line present to a
generator when the line is open at the far end?

A capacitive reactance
The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
An inductive reactance
The same as the input impedance to the final generator stage
4BI-6D.1

What kind of impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a
generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

A very high impedance
A very low impedance
The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
The same as the output impedance of the generator
4BI-6D.2


What kind of impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a
generator when the line is open at the far end?

A very high impedance
A very low impedance
The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
The same as the output impedance of the generator